R2) What is assumed ((to be) true), is assumed (to be true): It is contradictory (false) to define x’ to be valid for x if x is assumed (to be true).
And is that bought, well, then simpliciter T2 is valid (given T1); R2 is a more common assumption than Kp (which then presupposes Up).
And given T2 it is then "only" to define further, in which especially then Up’’’ (Etheoretically) is assumed, that equal (different) x also are equal, especially that a cluster of mx in (pure) room positioned in exactly the same way as another cluster of mx are exactly the same, except then for position.
Yes, given the Etheory it is completely natural to (commonly) assume Up (for all forms of x (thus generally)), that for example the previous exactly equal clusters of mx are one and the same cluster of mx if "they" exists in the (exactly) same position.
And Up’’ too, and that almost without the need to drag T1 in, it is just only (it is evident) irrational to see a cluster of mx holistically/meridioistically being able to be something more/less than this cluster of mx.
And if Up’’ is assumed to be valid in E, then it is just only absurd to more commonly assume that FT not is valid, because it is E that is empirically important, not what the thought not Ewise can concoct.
Again, this basic is not hard, complicated (once found), there is simply not much of alternatives. That the world would be so incredibly complicated is simply not true, that can only the mind that so to speak not has thought through think.
A little more about consciousness
Excluded that consciousness (M) is nothing (M≠0), there are commonly primarily four possibilities (for which there are a variety of more specific concepts in the literature (look up the concept of philosophy of mind)):
1) M={mx}(; mx≠0).
2) M=x; x={mx}+q(; mx,q≠0; q≠mx).
q can commonly either be (exogenously) added to x, or (synthetically, combinatory, endogenously) occur in x. The latter which of course contradicts T1 (q arises out of Nothing), then given that it not are about mx (q especially not is something mx sends out). If M not is a combination of mx and q, then there are two possibilities:
3) M=q; qÎx.
4) M=q; ((qÎx)).
In 3 M then only is(/are) q, but mx are a necessary condition for q, which mx not are in 4, q can (perhaps) exist freely, unbound to mx in case 4. q is commonly either a "large" (unitary, homogeneously) q, or consisting of smallest q (mq, equivalent to mx). Given the Etheory (I in section E), all mx are exactly equal, there exists no q≠mx.* But if that is disregarded (in the same way as Physics disregards it, by assuming the existence of lots of different kinds of "mx"), then by that primarily two different kinds of "substances" can exist: consciousnessx=q(/mq) and nonconsciousnessx=mx. Given these two different "substances", it can of course further be discussed around them, especially concerning if q must be laid down into x={mx} by someone/something in order for x to become an M. Given the Etheory of course all such discussion is nonsense, it is simpliciter 1 that is valid, M is just only the cluster of mx ({mx}). But if the Etheory not is assumed, especially given that Physics opens up for the existence of different "substances", then it is not particularly strange that a discussion about whether q exists can arise, which it obviously has done, and it thrives quite well yet to this day, at the time of writing (not least (mind) philosophically), thus if there is any fundamental difference between M and mx, if M is something (holistically) beyond {mx} (which M then not is in accordance with the Etheory).
__________ * Or if so wishes all mx=q, but given that it in accordance with the "empiri" exists unconscious x, it is more rational to define these x consist of mx than of q (that q=mx), thus to not introduce the concept of consciousness already at mxlevel, M perhaps arises later, is the (moving) interaction between mx (which then consists of compressed room, which it is absurd to see something consciouswise in, even if the potential, the possibility of consciousness exists in mx, in accordance withT1, but it then maybe manifested first in some mxconstellation).
Morals
Given T1 of course all (possible) morals exists as possibilities, even so if E is completely empty, in which case the morals of course has no significance whatsoever. Which it neither does at mxlevel, or at unconscious x(={mx})level, in which case mx/x just only are in the way mx/x are, without (self)reflection. But it is first for somewhat reflective, conscious x that morals have any significance. The more the less reflective can be claimed; The less reflective tends of course towards the completely unreflective/unconscious, by which it tends towards dogmatism/programming (if x acts in certain way in what can be defined to be (are) moral choices). And consequently morals have the least programmatic/dogmatic significance if all moral possibilities can be seen. Even if it in this latter case really comes down to choosing (between moral choices, requires an effort). The least the hermit has to choose, and the most the one in a social context. For social contexts it can be defined what is seen to be good for it per se, independent of its members (the collective is more important than the individual), which (of course) results in moral rules that the community sees all individuals in it must follow. Or on the contrary the individual can be defined to always precede society, the social construction, with which of course different moral rules results than if society, the social construction, is seen to precede the individual.
"Empirical" experiments
At least relatively clear "empirical" experiments are for example, that an apple sticks together, that there (perhaps) is a force that hold the apple together. That apples are falling to the Earth, that there (perhaps) is a force that makes that happen. That of other billiard balls thrusted billiard balls goes in different directions depending on how thrusting billiard balls hits the thrusted billiard balls, that there (perhaps) is a force that determines that. That x speed not is changed depending on the direction from which x passes or passes through a meter of x speed firmly anchored to the Earth's surface, given that x is "driven" at the same (own) speed, that x (perhaps) is "caught/glued" by the Earth's attraction force. That small particles which are shot away moves wobbly, especially if they are shot through slits, "larger" particles move more straight/rectilinear (for example laser light is a "larger" x, consists Etheoretically of more mx than "normal" light), which (perhaps) proves just that.
Concerning "entanglement" a relatively clear "empirical" experiment for such would be if it is valid that y a bit from x is affected if x is affected, without as it seems any "mx"interaction between x and y is occurring, or that y is somehow preprogrammed to behave in a certain way in harmony with x, which colloquially is called telepathy.
Given the Etheory, "entanglement" simpliciter cannot occur; mx cannot as the ("dead") small things they are communicate with other mx, neither with infinite nor with finite speed, except when they in thrusts are superpositionally positioned with one another (and then per assumption in accordance with the "empiri" as thrusting mx pass directional information over to the thrusted mx). The latter gives rise to the idea that "mx" can be superpositionally positioned even if they exists in different positions, which of course defines a completely different space than the Espace, by which T1 in particular must be rejected, which rationally simpliciter not is possible.
The experiments which are claimed to prove "entanglement" and other quantum mechanical phenomena can by no means be claimed to be clear, it is about utterly complicated devices where particles (lots at the same time, or "single ones" (one after the other)) are shot in different paths, where the paths/ways can be closed off or opened up for the particles, particles which also usually by dividers (instruments in the way of the particles) can be divided, so that the parts go off in different directions (by which it Etheoretically of course not is the matter of mx, because mx (of course) cannot be divided (yes, if they are divided, then they of course are completed, and that is not the case, primarily cleavage, in these devices)). And then it is detected where the "particles" end up through detectors, and then an interpretation is made of all this, of what happens in the device, preferably based on something mathematically calculated.*
Mathematics which often is seen as something superior, neutral, which can be the basis for all kinds of reality, usually it Physically is about "classical", quantum mechanical and relativistical(/einsteinian) reality, then according to different (mathematical) definitions (which are based on different mathematically formulated axioms, which presupposes that the basic mathematics, rules of inference are equally valid in whatever reality it is about). Which rationally of course is completely wrong, it is reality that is superior, mathematics subordinate (subordinated the reality, mathematics is not neutral), and valid only if it can be seen to fit reality.
A reality which then primarily given Up and T1 is defined by the Etheory, if a reality other than the Etheory wants to be seen, it is first and foremost T1 that must be rejected, which rationally not is possible. But can any clear "empirical" experiment prove the invalidity of T1, then it rationally of course only is to bow to that. One such experiment would be to try to travel to the rand of the Universe,** the Universe maybe not is so insanely stretched in certain direction, and there see that it stops, that it not is possible to get beyond the rand, into Nothing; If it not is dead stop, but it is possible to get past the "rand", it is (of course) not a matter of Nothing beyond the "rand" (but of E that continues). In and for itself it can be the case, because the Universe forces Nothing out if Nothing exists around the Universe, that for example the arm that reaches into Nothing and displaces Nothing, stretches space out. Even if Nothing then principally contradictorily has the property of being able to be displaced, pushed, forced out, just as Nothing contradictorily has the property of not being able to be pushed, forced out, displaced by an arm if the arm cannot penetrate, push out Nothing. And if an arm cannot penetrate, push, force Nothing out, force Nothing away, can the Universe then do it? Well, it is probably simply so that T1 is valid.
__________ * Already the conventional interpretation of the Doubleslit experiment is then Etheoretically highly questionable, so there is little point in more specifically getting into Etheoretical interpretations of these other quantum mechanical experiments, until it really is shown that there is something nonEtheoretically regarding the travel of shot particles between "canon" and surface (which perhaps is the basis for the interpretation of these other experiments, and in which case the Etheoretical interpretation (of wobbly particles) of course is false), which simply means to clearly show that there is no path for the particles between canon and surface, but that the particles "jump" randomly between canon and surface ("jumps" defined by the mathematical wave function, the "particle" is in all positions of the mathematical wave function before the random outcome on the surface as it usually quantummechanically is expressed), "jumps" longer than the extremely short "jumps" that it Etheoretically is about (on the wobbly path between cannon and surface for very small particles); Which of course principally can be seen if it can be brought down to "mx"level, "mx" on its journey can be followed like a fly's journey can be followed.
** That that is impossible in accordance with the theories of relativity is of course only to ignore, theories cannot, must not prevent "empirical" experiments, attempts; According to the theories of relativity it is then only to (jointly) follow the light in its path (as a string mollusc), one is then part of light, a light flow in this larger flow of light, which then is the Universe, so only if one is at the edge toward Nothing of the Universe's flow of light it is perhaps possible to say something "empirical" about Nothing there beyond the Universe, beyond the edge/rand of the flow of light (which then is the Universe).
"N's" truth table again
Which then reads:
x y true false false true
Which commonly interpreted, (then) shall be interpreted:
If x≥0 (per definition) is true, then all y(≠x) is false (for x).
If x≥0 (per definition) is false, then the following possibilities are valid:
x=0 is false or completely false: There exists at least one "replacer" y(≠0) which defines x(≠0, being) true; In this case completely false simpliciter defines a stronger conviction than if x merely is seen as false.
x≠0 is false: There exists at least one "replacer" y≥0 which defines x(≥0, being) true; If y=0 it of course only is a matter of one "replacer", and x is completely false (ex post; x=0).
x≠0 is completely false: There is no "replacer" y≠0 which defines x (being) true, but y(=x)=0 (ex post).
It is thus not quite simple to (rationally) interpret this table. To interpret it algorithmically, as a (general) simple rule structure, is in some extent possible as long as completely false x not is in the picture, it is about x,y≥0, where x or y just only can be false, there always is a (at least one) "replacer" (≥0) for a false x(≥0). But if y=0, provided that x(≠0) is false, then x is completely false and there is no point at all analysing x, analysis of whether x is x or y is completely meaningless (then because it is a matter of a completely false phenomenon (x), which no y (other than then 0) defines true), but for meaningful analysis there must be "replacers" ≠0, which in principle explains Classical logic's (Nlogic's) assumption of just that, and further the reduction (from the previous commonly valid) to (the assumption of, the extremely restricted) N (which then defines it as just only standing between two (unique) alternatives, x and y). But, it (the existence of y≠0 given that x≠0 is false) then excludes the possibility that x can be completely false (that x=0 (ex post)), which simpliciter (rationally) cannot be ruled out (everyone probably are able to think of something (x) that they see is completely false, which they not in any way can see be defined as true (that x true is y(≠x,0)), can be "reversed" (by a "replacer" y(≠0) which defines x true) into something true).
Even that that it may be many "replacers", not just only one as then according to N, confutes N. In which case it of course (perhaps) is to choose a "replacer". A platonistical/empirical presupposition in (the assumption of) N can be discerned in this, because it given some platonistically or empirically existing x(≠0) is something (y≠0) that (categorically) defines x true. But nothing is then determined until it is determined, and moreover then it can be so that the definite, determined x≠0 (especially then an assumed platonistically/empirically x) turns out to be completely false (through some kind of revision), and thus x=y=0, which then further confutes N (which defines that that not is possible).
